Can an effect precede its cause? Can the present affect the past? Can the future affect the present? As logically absurd as these questions may seem, they ALL relate to an apparent paranormal phenomenon known as 'retrocausality'. Here is some basic information about retrocausality from Wikipedia (from this URL: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Retrocausality):
Retrocausality is any of several hypothetical phenomena or processes that reverse causality, allowing an effect to occur before its cause. Also referred to as retro-causation, backward causation or by other, similar terms, it is primarily a philosophy of science thought experiment based on elements of physics, addressing the question: Can what happens in the future affect the present, and can the present affect the past? Philosophical considerations of time travel often address the same issues as retrocausality, although the two terms are not universally synonymous. While a few legitimate scientific theories have also proposed limited forms of retrocausality, no experimental observations have been reliably reported as of 2006.
I believe that the apparent threefold division of time (ie. the past, the present and the future) is, at heart, an illusion. The paranormal phenomenon known as 'precognition' seems to reinforce this claim. How can thousands of people around the world since time immemorial claim to have had dreams in which they CLEARLY witnessed future events which eventually came to pass in almost EXACTLY (if not exactly!) the same way it supposedly occurred in their dreams? I think it is due to 'time' (as we know it) being non-linear (as opposed to linear). In addition to this, every infinitesimal moment of 'time' might very well be occurring simultaneously! So this could mean that somehow, the people who sincerely claim to have experienced a precognitive dream(s) might have been able to either intentionally or unintentionally 'pick' certain scenes from the future which has already happened! This would also tie in with the almost universal religious belief that everything acts in accordance with Supreme Will. If NOTHING can override Supreme Will, then, in an absolute sense, everything is pre-ordained. Retrocausality seems to also make sense to me when envisioning something without a beginning. It ALWAYS seemed incomprehensible to me how something (ANYTHING in fact) could be beginningless. Then I realised something. Eternity is a two-way street! If eternity is basically the absence of time, then it cannot ONLY be a span of time WITHOUT an end but ALSO without a beginning AS WELL! It CANNOT be truthfully said that ANYTHING can be eternal if it had a beginning. If it had a beginning, then it MUST also have an end. So if eternity extends from everlastingness to everlastingness (ie. if it SIMULTANEOUSLY extends infinitely into the so-called 'past' as well as infinitely into the so-called 'future'), then the so-called 'past' might STILL be in the process of construction and/or already occurring as I type this very message! As a result, retrocausality might actually be a legitimate paranormal phenomenon. What does everyone else think? Are 'new' events still unfolding in the so-called 'past'? Is retrocausality a legitimate paranormal phenomenon?
Retrocausality is any of several hypothetical phenomena or processes that reverse causality, allowing an effect to occur before its cause. Also referred to as retro-causation, backward causation or by other, similar terms, it is primarily a philosophy of science thought experiment based on elements of physics, addressing the question: Can what happens in the future affect the present, and can the present affect the past? Philosophical considerations of time travel often address the same issues as retrocausality, although the two terms are not universally synonymous. While a few legitimate scientific theories have also proposed limited forms of retrocausality, no experimental observations have been reliably reported as of 2006.
I believe that the apparent threefold division of time (ie. the past, the present and the future) is, at heart, an illusion. The paranormal phenomenon known as 'precognition' seems to reinforce this claim. How can thousands of people around the world since time immemorial claim to have had dreams in which they CLEARLY witnessed future events which eventually came to pass in almost EXACTLY (if not exactly!) the same way it supposedly occurred in their dreams? I think it is due to 'time' (as we know it) being non-linear (as opposed to linear). In addition to this, every infinitesimal moment of 'time' might very well be occurring simultaneously! So this could mean that somehow, the people who sincerely claim to have experienced a precognitive dream(s) might have been able to either intentionally or unintentionally 'pick' certain scenes from the future which has already happened! This would also tie in with the almost universal religious belief that everything acts in accordance with Supreme Will. If NOTHING can override Supreme Will, then, in an absolute sense, everything is pre-ordained. Retrocausality seems to also make sense to me when envisioning something without a beginning. It ALWAYS seemed incomprehensible to me how something (ANYTHING in fact) could be beginningless. Then I realised something. Eternity is a two-way street! If eternity is basically the absence of time, then it cannot ONLY be a span of time WITHOUT an end but ALSO without a beginning AS WELL! It CANNOT be truthfully said that ANYTHING can be eternal if it had a beginning. If it had a beginning, then it MUST also have an end. So if eternity extends from everlastingness to everlastingness (ie. if it SIMULTANEOUSLY extends infinitely into the so-called 'past' as well as infinitely into the so-called 'future'), then the so-called 'past' might STILL be in the process of construction and/or already occurring as I type this very message! As a result, retrocausality might actually be a legitimate paranormal phenomenon. What does everyone else think? Are 'new' events still unfolding in the so-called 'past'? Is retrocausality a legitimate paranormal phenomenon?
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